Comment: Why Mr. Twain,

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Why Mr. Twain,

I was hoping someone of refined intelligence such as yours would answer my question; and because I am still lacking, can you explain to me why, if a state has seceded from a Federal Government, that a citizen of such state would still be beholden to the Federal Governing rules; i.e., those Federal Rules by which the IRS functions?

Why would not the citizen only be beholden to that independent state's rules in that case?

I do recall, though, Mr. Patrick Henry’s words (thanks to my friend Josf who gave me the link early in my Liberty Education) :

“1.3 I rose yesterday to ask a question which arose in my own mind. When I asked that question, I thought the meaning of my interrogation was obvious. The fate of this question and of America may depend on this. Have they said, We, the states? Have they made a proposal of a compact between states? If they had, this would be a confederation. It is otherwise most clearly a consolidated government.

1.10 The question turns, sir, on that poor little thing the expression, We, the people, instead of the states, of America. I need not take much pains to show that the principles of this system are extremely pernicious, impolitic, and dangerous. Is this a monarchy, like England a compact between prince and people, with checks on the former to secure the liberty of the latter? Is this a confederacy, like Holland an association of a number of independent states, each of which retains its individual sovereignty? It is not a democracy, wherein the people retain all their rights securely.”

(The 2 paragraphs following at that link are worth reading as well though I did not attach them for lengths sake.)

Will the people of a state that has completed secession still be beholden to the federal government because the Federal Contract, the Constitution, is with the people and not with the state?

Begging a question to Mr. Carlin’s statement: "They have a club, & you ain't in it!"

I am wondering, Perhaps we cannot get out of their club?