I would not allow my child to have sex with anyone, at any age. So long as my child is living under my roof - i.e. on my property - he/she must obey my rules. Please refrain from creating a caricature of my argument.
I am saying that pedophilia is not inherently criminal, because it is not inherently rape. Rape is a violation of one's property rights in their own person; consensual sex between two partners which the government has declared may not have sex violates nothing.
For instance, say a man goes to a bar, and meets a nubile young woman who flirts with him. The young woman happens to be a minor, but she looks and acts like an adult, and does not disclose her age. Say that this sexually precocious young woman voluntarily accompanies the man home, where she engages in consensual sexual intercourse with him. Technically, at this point, that man is a "pedophile," guilty as sin according to the law. Say that young woman's parents later discover what their daughter did, and report that man to the police. Say that man is sentenced to serve many years in prison, where he is repeatedly raped for being a "pedophile." Say when that man is finally set free from the rape cage to which he was condemned, he is now legally obligated to publicize his "pedophilia" for the rest of his life, thus living with a shameful stigma which ostracizes him from society. That man's life was ruined all because he made the mistake of having consensual sex with a minor. Is that just?
I am really not sure why I am having to defend myself here. I am saying that rape is a crime, but that consensual sex should not be criminalized. Who could object to that?
"Yesterday we obeyed kings and bent our necks before emperors, but today we kneel only to truth." - Kahlil Gibran
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