"but it is important to make the broader point that our federal government has zero moral authority to legislate against violence."
Why is that? Is he saying that no government has the moral authority to legislate against violence, that laws are bad, or is he saying when liberty is a governments enemy, it's lost the moral authority to use force, because that force will NEVER serve justice?
As he's said many times; government is force, and the only legitimate purpose of government is to defend liberty. 1 + 1 = 2
If force is used to defend liberty, it's serving justice, thus the only legitimate purpose of government is to serve justice, and this government, our government, no longer has the moral authority to use force, because it no longer serves justice. It serves injustice and oppression.
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