Your argument is inconsistant with itself, and parts of it make zero sense. Sentence three in particular makes no sense what-so-ever; and the best I can figure it doesn't fit with sentence one or the statements of the OP's post. In sentence four, I'm not sure what 3rd payers are. Also, you state that wholesalers would sell the drugs to other european countries to undercut said countries med prices; this taken with what you state, "the REASON meds are so much cheaper in Greece is because they've been exporting Greek inflation for years," well, they certainly aren't exporting their inflation anymore and therefore the prices of the meds would neccessarily go higher to a more average rate with other european countries. This would therefore, eliminate the possibility of Greeks selling the meds to undercut the prices of other european countries; would it not?
Also, you state that the Pharmaceutical companies are just reacting to market forces, and yet none of them claim that their desicion is based on the inability of the Greek people to pay for the meds, nor do they state as reason for discontinueing shipping as, that there is no longer a demand for their products in Greece; wouldn't these be more inline with market forces then what they are actually claiming as reason?
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