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Comment: Seriously? God's righteous wrath against something God allows?

(See in situ)

In reply to comment: I'm sorry but you're plain wrong. (see in situ)

Seriously? God's righteous wrath against something God allows?

How does that work?

Both the Old and New Testaments specifically allow slavery. What is the just basis for incurring "God's righteous wrath" in this regard? Were they doing it wrong? Would there have been zero wrath on this point if they'd enslaved people in a more biblically correct manner?