You are kidding right?
you have no idea that individual rights do not extend to public property by default.
1) There shouldn't even be 'Public Property.' It would have obviously had to have been forced off of the Market by a government, creating a market distortion of local property values.
2) The 1st Amendment is actually only applicable on 'Public Property.' As the 1st Amendment recognizes the 'People's' right to peaceably organize, protest, or assemble; the government cannot protect that right for an individual(s) to do that on somebody else's Private Property.
To not be able to assemble on 'Public Property,' how could they ever force government to address their grievances; or are the people not to have grievances against their government?
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