My mother had a garage sell last week! She must be an aggressive criminal.
Although I don't remember signing a contract with Nike when I bought those shoes... I guess its some sort of vague implied contract. But still, she is quite evil, after all she is cutting into Nike's profits!
Since when is every purchase only a transfer of partial ownership? Does this not require an explicit agreement, instead of an implied, state regulated rule? If I design a new invention using an ACME pencil, is ACME entitled to royalties from my invention? Obviously not, but my question is what principle says they are not? The principle is that when they sold me the pencil, they sold me full ownership of the pencil, unless explicitly stated otherwise.
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