Comment: Well..

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And where does the term sodomite or sodomy originate from? That's kind of important. As I've already shown - the town of Sodom and Gomorrah were accused of being wicked and immoral on many different levels, not just gay sexual intercourse - in fact, they did not engage merely in gay sexual acts - they RAPED GUESTS, which is a LITTLE DIFFERENT than just consensual sex. This would be like me using a story from the bible where a guy rapes a woman to suggest that this means HETEROSEXUAL SEX IS IMMORAL. But on to the term's "as"inine origination;

c.1300, from O.Fr. sodomie, from L.L. peccatum Sodomiticum "anal sex," lit. "sin of Sodom," from L. Sodoma, ult. from Heb. s'dom "Sodom," morally corrupt city in ancient Palestine, said to have been destroyed, with neighboring Gomorrah, by fire from heaven (Gen. xviii-xix). Sodomize coined 1868. In Du.
slang, besodemieteren means "to deceive," and evidently is built from the traditional notion of "corruption" in Sodom.

The story from which the term originates suggests that "sodomy" could mean almost anything. For instance, I could accuse someone of being a "sodomite" because they're not nice to strangers. Once you understand that the term sodomy REALLY means nothing, it then seems really ridiculous when someone uses it to define or argue something. Although I'm not entirely sure what you're arguing.

Your particular focus and fascination appears to be with anal sex, which is also useless because many homosexuals also don't like to engage in it, nor is it exclusively practiced by homosexuals - thus your entire case is completely DESTROYED. The very same judgments you apply to homosexuality could equally apply to heterosexuality.

Do you want to kill all homosexuals?
Are you suggesting all homosexuals should merely "not be allowed" to marry?
Are you against sex in general, or just between those of the same sex?
What is your problem with homosexuality, if not biblical interpretation?