> While it's a coherent thought that such might a thing might occur, in historical reality all actual monopolies have been provided by states.
I've argued this with left-libertarians. They'll argue that's exactly how things were in eastern Europe in the early 20th century.
canucksforpaul2 also suggested the situation must have been due to government intervention that essentially amounted to theft of the property.
I don't know enough about the details of the region and time to say for sure one way or the other... but I can't deny it's at least possible.
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