Does anyone know? This is crucial information here. It is my understanding that essentially the judge entered a plea of not guilty for him due to his "silence is consent" at arraignment.
Can anyone confirm whether a formal plea was entered by Adam or by any lawyer he may be working with or whether it was the "Judge" presiding over the case?
If Adam or an attorney has not formally entered a plea, the court still does not have consent of the Governed for any action, thereby lacking a valid cause of action and thus the court lacks subject matter jurisdiction to hear the case.
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