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Comment: I am a former Christian, if such a thing is possible.

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I am a former Christian, if such a thing is possible.

I simply had to distance myself from them once I woke up.
today I consider myself a Deist.

one day it occurred to me to look into the gunpowder plot thing..
"remember, remember the 5th of November"
it turns out that event was in 1605. King James was in power, yes, THAT King James.
the KJV came out in 1611. (things that make you go...hmmm.)
they were trying to kill king James, the very same King James the Pilgrims were fleeing from......

we all know that the "Bible" is a translation. therefore, it makes perfect sense to me that footnotes would be needed.

yes, I realize this is posted in the religion forum. it is not my intent to be rude. my intent is to ask those who might know more than I.
it is also not my intent to sell any books. my query is about the Geneva Bible.

is it even remotely possible that King James duped the Christians?
does that explain why they are generally, docile and compliant?
is that a taboo subject? or a key to unlock a door?
comments please.