Comment: This seems like simantics

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This seems like simantics

Monopoly defn.: "the exclusive possession or control of the supply or trade in a commodity or service."
"Force" in this case means coercing individuals to behave in ways they would otherwise not choose by their own free will.

As I see it the government does indeed have exclusive control of forcing individuals to do things against their will, and therefore exercises a "monopoly on force." That being said, this does not in any way make your other statements untrue. I'm afraid I don't see the problem here.