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So now you are asserting that the term 'Nazism' existed in 1871. Change of story...

When it says: "(Readers who argue that the terms Nazism and Zionism were not known in 1871 should remember that the Illuminati invented both these movements."

Why would anyone "remember" that unsupported assertion? It's as if they are trying to imply that it's common knowledge that the Illuminati invented those terms, while there is no evidence for such a claim. This seems rather to be damage control to further the lie that the letter is authentic.